Welcome to Misconceptions Clarified XIII, "Does The Bible Approve Same-Sex Marriage?" 

Since the Obergefell vs Hodges decision in 2015, the LGBT agenda has obviously grown tremendously in speech and practice to the extent that anyone who disagrees with their lifestyle has been labeled all sorts of derogatory names. The outcry for acceptance has been so loud that it has penetrated the mainstream church and caused several of them to split on this controversial issue, and unfortunately, it won’t be too long when the churches who advocate for traditional marriage will be in the minority. Just look at the Revoice Conference held at Memorial Presbyterian Church in St. Louis on July 26th-28th, a prominently conservative denomination of Christianity who are now opening their doors of accommodation to the LGBT agenda. The mission of the Revoice Conference “is to engage in "supporting, encouraging, and empowering gay, lesbian, same-sex-attracted, and other LGBT Christians so they can flourish while observing the historic, Christian doctrine of marriage and sexuality." Their whole intent is to essentially mix two brands of doctrine together as one. That’s how intentional and effective the voice of the LGBT community has become. 

Yet, the question that remains to be answered is... “Does the Bible approve of same-sex marriage?” Does the Word of God need to conform to the societal changes of the 21st century and be reinterpreted to accommodate the world? What about those who believe the Bible to be authoritative for traditional marriage? Do they now need to reopen their minds to same-sex marriage and just accept their interpretation of the scriptures? Or, what about the argument that the Bible doesn't actually mean what it says when it comes to homosexuality? Were the scholars who had a role in the English translation of the scriptures throughout the past five centuries in error? Moreover, did the writers of the Bible who spoke against same-sex relations and claimed inspiration by God misspoke? What about the Jewish culture where the scriptures actually derive from, did they have it wrong all these years that homosexuality was immoral? These are some of the questions that comes to mind whenever this controversial subject arises, which this article will briefly explore. 

Take for instance, Leviticus 18:22 which says, “Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, that is detestable.” Now, is this verse suppose to mean something different from what it says? When Moses was outlining what was sexually forbidden in Leviticus 18, he gave very specific examples such as sex with a relative, sex with your mother, sex with your sister, sex with your daughter, sex with your in-laws, sex with your father’s sister, sex with your brother’s wife, sex with a woman on her menstrual cycle, or sex with an animal were all specifically forbidden. In Leviticus 18, Moses is very detailed in this entire account, and if scripture means something different than what it says, does that mean that scripture is not plain when it says that “you should not have sexual intercourse with your mother?” Of course not! So, how is it different all of a sudden when Moses said, “Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman.” How is it different when Moses specifically said in Leviticus 20:13, “If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own head.” If this clear command in scripture doesn’t mean what it says, then the command to not have sexual intercourse with your mother also doesn’t mean what it says, which opens Pandora’s Box of permissibility of everything sexually forbidden in Leviticus 18! 

You see, this is where a lack of knowledge is truly destroying the people of God! When it comes to the interpretation of the ancient scriptures, people interpret scripture with a 21st century lens by saying that it wasn't specific enough or it doesn't say verbatim this or verbatim that (even though the scripture above is obviously plain). Anyone who does any kind of cultural study on Judaism or an exegesis of the original languages understands that when the Bible speaks of “sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman,” or “sexual immorality” or that “men committed shameful acts with other men,” the audience of that era understood exactly what that meant. They spoke in terms their audience could identify with and understand, not with our 21st century standards of "form criticism," a methodology developed in the 19th century to examine scripture.

Moreover, when it comes to the forbidden sexual relations outlined in scripture, did God intend his word to be subjective to however his people want to interpret it? No!! God is not a man that he should lie nor the son of man that he should change his mind. Jesus is the same yesterday, the same today, and the same forevermore! The natural design of procreation is between a male and a female, no Bible is needed for that, and Paul says in Romans 1:20, "For since the creation of the world God’s invisible qualities—his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that people are without excuse.” 

In other words, God made it plain to humanity through his Word and through the "natural" order of creation of what's natural and what’s unnatural. In order to charge a cell phone the natural way, it needs a plug and a socket to get juice. Likewise, God designed his creation a natural way for them to be fruitful and multiple, and any other way outside this design would be deemed unnatural. Furthermore, God took it one step further by preserving his word that clearly says in Genesis 1:27 that He created them male and female to become one flesh. And then Jesus came into the picture and confirmed that Word that was in the beginning of Genesis when he said in Matthew 19:4-6, "Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’ and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” 

Even Paul was incredibly specific regarding what was included under the umbrella of sexual immorality when he said in 1 Corinthians 6:9, “do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men.” If this is not specific enough, the newer English translations are even more specific than ever before. For instance the NET Bible, a very recent translation says,  “Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! The sexually immoral, idolaters, adulterers, passive homosexual partners, practicing homosexuals, thieves, the greedy, drunkards, the verbally abusive, and swindlers will not inherit the kingdom of God.” Notice the Greek word "arsenokoites" is translated as “practicing homosexual,” which means, “one who lies with a male as with a female, sodomite, homosexual.” So, this idea that the Bible isn’t specific enough is thrown right out the window with the newer English translations that’s steadily trying to keep up with the ever-evolving English language while getting rid of archaic terminology. Even during the days of the KJV in the 17th and 18th century, terms such as fornicators, effeminate, and abusers of themselves was very specific during that era. There was no ambiguity regarding what Leviticus 18:22, 20:13, Romans 1:27, 1 Corinthians 6:9, and 1 Timothy 1:10 meant. It was only at the turn of the 21st century where the LGBT community inserted the ambiguity, questioned the authority of scripture, and became law by the United States government in 2015. And while advocates of the LGBT agenda dispute the above verses, there is not one verse in all of scripture that God approves of same-sex anything. There is not one single instance in all of scripture that God said He created them male and male or female and female to become one flesh! The same argument of specificity used by the LGBT community against traditional marriage backfires on their own doctrine of homosexuality because there is no specific terminology or examples that someone can point to approving of any act of homosexuality. Not one!!! 

Unfortunately, the underlying problem that our church has continued to explore and make awareness of, is Satan’s influence in the world and how he’s constantly prowling around like a roaring lion seeking whom he can get to question the authority of scripture, just like he did in the beginning with Adam and Eve when he said, "Did God really say you must not eat from any tree in the garden?” The devil has been a liar since the beginning of creation and he's been questioning the Word of God on this particular topic by saying, "Did God really say that marriage is just between a male and a female?" Therefore, when it comes to the question, “Does the Bible approve same-sex marriage,” the answer is an astounding NO according to the scriptures. As mentioned previously, there’s nowhere in scripture that affirms same-sex relations or same-sex marriage. Matter of fact, every single English Translation (except the Queen James Bible that is obviously biased), all contain a consistent variation of interpretation that same-sex relations is a sin in need of repentance. The sin of homosexuality along with every other sin is exactly why Jesus stepped off his throne in heaven, became flesh, dwelt among men, was crucified, and rose from the dead to destroy the work of the devil, and to wash whoever accepts Him as Lord and Savior, and repents from their sin. In the same passage in 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 Paul says at the end, “Some of you once lived this way (referring to those caught up in the sin of homosexuality and the other sins outlined in the passage), but you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God.”